
2) What do you think of having a new statistical tool whereby the wealth of a country would be measured not by GDP per capita but by GDP per capita of the lowest 10% (or 25%) of the population?
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March 10, 2005
Useless Statistical Almanac n°4
![]() 2) What do you think of having a new statistical tool whereby the wealth of a country would be measured not by GDP per capita but by GDP per capita of the lowest 10% (or 25%) of the population?
Comments
1) It is not taking into account the elevated standard of living created by an elevated GDP. Posted by: Scape | Mar 10 2005 11:05 utc | 2 Well, the first one is too easy. It’s not that bad if you manage to get in vacation to Bolivia or if you just can cash in the money and go live in Zambia, because the cost of living is far lower there, but it’s quite high in the US – though on par or lower than many European countries. Posted by: CluelessJoe | Mar 10 2005 12:36 utc | 4 I started to hate averages, too. More power to the medians! Posted by: MarcinGomulka | Mar 10 2005 12:45 utc | 5 CJ: People do know, they’re not completely stupid. The problem is that many of them either don’t care or believe it has to be that way. ad 1) my retort would be that almost everywhere prices of things are calculated in such a way that you can afford stuff if you earn the median or more, not if you earn under the median. you just need to put your income in relation to the median of your country, make a basket of the stuff you consume in a month and ask yerself if a person earning 1/2 the median would be able to afford exactly those items. the “is not so bad” slur probably comes from somebody who thinks that if the poor can supplement their diets with dog food things cant be that bad. Posted by: name | Mar 10 2005 16:47 utc | 7 I know name, I know. I deleted a long rant about it from my post because it wasn’t funny enough to keep. The easiest way to stop people from arguing with this statistic would be to calculate how much money per day is being spent, total, rather than phrasing it with all these meta-words. As it is, this statistic is only useful for showing that wages are not distributed along a bell curve. Suppose that wages were arranged in a bell curve (which I don’t think has ever been the case, any time in history, but just imagine it for a minute). Then the median will be in the middle of the curve, so the median wage = the mean wage. Then 50% of the median wage will be halfway from the left end of the curve to the middle, meaning that it will be exactly 25%. Since the bell curve gets small at the ends, the area of the left quadrant will be much, much less than 25%. (I can’t say the exact amount, because I don’t remember the formulas and don’t have a calculator to hand, but a quick web search indicates around 2 or 3%.) So if wages were distributed along a bell curve (and—one more assumption which is not necessarily true—children were randomly distributed throughout the population), this statistic would be around 2 or 3%. (Well done, Denmark!) Unfortunately, without more information, you can’t say much about the distribution in reality which gives a statistic like the U.S. one. It could be (and actually is) shaped like a capital “L,” with lots of low wages offset by a few high ones, but it could also be nearly flat, or it could be “M”-shaped, or “W”-shaped, or an infinite number of others… any of these could lead to 20% of the households having less than half the median wage. (What would be useful is to know the mean and the median; if the median is significantly lower than the mean—which it is”it means that the “L” is the way things are. And the mode—the most common number, corresponding to the highest point on the curve”would be nice, too, although it can be misleading.) Posted by: Blind Misery | Mar 10 2005 17:52 utc | 9 Poverty is not an absolute description, but a relative one as presently defined in Western countries (x below the average, bottom quartile or decentile. etc. as based on income on dollars or francs or whatever.) Posted by: Blackie | Mar 10 2005 18:57 utc | 10 Poverty is not an absolute description, but a relative one as presently defined in Western countries (x below the average, bottom quartile or decentile. etc. as based on income on dollars or francs or whatever.) Posted by: Blackie | Mar 10 2005 19:00 utc | 11 Blackie – very moving post. Thanks for posting twice! Posted by: Jérôme | Mar 10 2005 21:48 utc | 14 To question #1: Poverty is a relative concept. It is a far different experience being poor in a poor culture than being poor in a rich culture, as anyone whose cozy IT job has ever been outsourced to India can attest. Posted by: Sandra | Mar 11 2005 5:36 utc | 16 Poverty with self-sufficiency — as a peasant farmer or fisher, let’s say — is quite different I think from poverty in a metropolitan setting where all labour has been commodified and controlled by capital. The metropolitan labourer is essentially dependent on others — on the Boss or on the State — for the necessities of daily life, and without a monetary wage is unable to provide for self or family. The poor farmer in some rural “noplace” in India — until kicked off his/her land by corporate agribiz — is at least able to provide food and sometimes basic clothing for the extended family. Even gleaning the fields of others may yield enough greens or grain to keep body and soul together. The urban poor cannot even glean or graze — everything in their environment is private property, and any foraging which is not purchase is theft. Women account for 70% of world’s poor Posted by: Cherchez la femme | Mar 11 2005 8:46 utc | 19 As a person who is lucky o have the chance to travel all around the world(I visited 26 countries from 4 continents including SA,Mexico,France,Germany,Spain,Far East,Africa,some other European countries)I can easily tell you that Rich does not mean rich or poor does not mean poor.All of us consider countries richness or poorness according to GDP rates or national income per capita rates.But in my opiion we must make the classification according to living standarts.In Turkey having a dinner in a medium class fish restaurant costs around 40 YTL(approximately 30 US Dollars)including salad,a few beer or a few glasses of Raki per person.I already know that I mst pay at least 70 Euros for this kind of meal in Europe or USA but I can have this meal much more cheaper in Egypt or Far East. Posted by: CETIN | Mar 12 2005 16:18 utc | 21 |
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